Opthalmology Crossword

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5. Being farsighted makes you "----------"
7. These can be used to decrease the risk of wet macular degeneration in those with dry macular degeneration
9. Mild ptosis in Horner's syndrome is due to decreased action of the ______'s muscle
11. Where is aqueous humour produced?
13. Herpes simplex infection of the eye will show a _________ lesion on fluoroscene stain
14. Nasty complication of ischemic central retinal vein occlusion
16. _____% of those with posterior vitreous detachment develop retinal tear
19. Stiffening of the lens with age causes a condition known as __________
21. A technique of shining light into a person's eyes and observing where the light reflects from the cornea is known as _________'s corneal reflex test
23. The normal corneal thickness ____ ____ and _______ microns
24. Example of a miotic agent
26. Being nearsighted makes you "---------"
28. Surgical treatment for chronic glaucoma where a hole is cut through the superior limbus
29. Conjunctival SCC usually arise at the ______
30. Harmless elevation of nasal conjunctiva
33. If a person has double vision even after covering one eye, the problem is likely due to ______ error
36. Rosacea causes this condition
38. Which portion of the neural rim is thickest?
40. A cholesterol plaque causing retinal embolisation, usually asymptomatic, is known as a "________" cholesterol plaque
42. Retinal detachment caused by a retinal tear is known as ____________ retinal detachment
46. The bone most likely to fracture during blunt trauma to the eye
48. herpes zoster opthalmicus traditionally affects what nerve?
49. Seeing lumps of tobacco like pigment in the anterior vitreous is indicative of a retinal detachment. Known as _________ sign
50. The angle of the anterior chamber can be measured using ________
54. Which muscle is solely responsible for depression of the eye when the gaze is directed medially?
55. Suspended pigment particles floating in the anterior vitreous is pathognomic for a retinal tear. This is known as _______'s sign
57. Most common cause of viral conjunctivitis
63. The capsule of the lens is held in place by suspensory ligaments known as ______
66. Supplies nutrition to the outer 1/3 of the retina
68. Putting a gas bubble into the eye to push the retina back (in retinal detachment) is known as ________ __________
72. A pupil where the parasympathetic pathway has been knocked out that looks dilated is known as an ____'s tonic pupil
74. Cystoid macular oedema as a complication of cataract removal is more common in those with ________
75. When areas of the vitreous liquify, this can cause ______ ________ ________
78. Risk factor for retinal detachment
79. A type of inflammatory conjunctivitis, autoimmune, can cause blindness
80. If a patient has myasthenia gravis, you must also work them up for _______
87. Best treatment for conjunctival papilloma
91. Which portion of the neural rim is thinnest?
92. Which nerve supplies the cornea of the eye and the tip of the nose?
93. Haemorrhages that occur within the superficial ganglion nerve layer are known as _____ haemorrhages
94. THe optic tract projects to the _________ nucleus which projects to a nucleus on the contralateral side during the consensual light reflex
95. Fatty lipids left behind on the retina after past macula swelling
96. The thinnest part of the orbit is called the ______ ________ and is a part of the ______ bone
97. You must use topical ______ to control HSV disciform keratitis
102. Treatment of acanthomoeba keratitis
103. A diverging lens is also known as a _____ lens
104. When the meibomian glands become inflamed they can turn into a granulomatous _________
105. A converging lens is also known as a ______ lens
106. If the eyes move disconjugately, it is known as _______
107. The thickest layer of the cornea is the ______

Down

1. Infection of the sebaceous gland or eyelash follicle
2. A _____ _____ pupil is also known as a RAPD
3. What type of chemical burn is worse for the eye?
4. Which type of conjunctivitis has pre-auricular node involvement
6. Anterior synechia causes _______ ______ glaucoma
8. Most common cause of preventable blindness
10. Most common corneal ectasia
12. Salmon patch appearance is consistent with a conjunctival _________
15. Vertical gaze palsy caused by a tumour of the pineal gland is known as ________ syndrome
17. You are _____ if you have your natural lens
18. The method used to see if a laceration has penetrated completely through the cornea is known as the "_____" test
20. Separation of the RPE from ________ membrane is known as RPE detachment
22. Which ocular muscle originates from the anterior part of the orbit?
25. A fluid level of pus in the eye is known as _______-
27. Red, painful eye with n/v, sluggish pupil and "haloes" around lights is classical of ___ _____ _____ ______
31. Which muscle is solely responsible for elevation of the eye when the gaze is directed medially?
32. OD is opthalmologist slang for "------" eye
34. Wet AMD is characterised by development of a ________ _________ ________
35. Biggest risk factor for macular degeneration
37. The condition in which basement membrane-like material is deposited throughout the body, leading to open angle glaucoma
39. Signs seen within the eye in dry AMD
41. How the eyes move together in synchrony is known as ________
43. The law of refraction is known as "_______'s" law
44. What antibiotic should you use for a corneal ulcer in a contact lens wearer?
45. Sudden, diffuse blurring of one eye with floaters. Can be caused by a retinal tear amongst other causes.
47. In posterior synechia the iris adheres to the _______
48. Neovascular glaucoma is due to excessive ____ production
51. Medical term for dry eye
52. The triad of retinitis pigmentosa is ______ ______, perivascular bony spicule pigmentation and optic disc pallor
53. Most common cause of irreversible blindness
56. Most common cause of blindness in patients with diabetes
58. A muscular band that serves as the insertion point for the four rectus muscles
59. How can you diagnose macular holes?
60. RAPD indicates significant damage of the optic nerve
61. Inheritance pattern of granular and lattice dystrophy
62. A pupil that accomodates but does not react to light is known as an ______________ pupil
64. The _______________________ receives input from the ipsilateral and contralateral side during the consensual eye reflex to allow for simultaneous constriction of both pupils in response to light
65. The way each eye moves individually in the cardinal directions is known as _________
66. In anterior synchecia the iris adheres to the __________
67. Progressive fleshy growth across the cornea from conjunctiva
68. Device used to measure corneal thickness
69. Most common viral infection of the cornea
70. Distortion of straight lines is known as ____________
71. The hallmark feature of central retinal artery occlusion
73. Aqueous humour drains back into the venous circulation via the ____ __ _______
76. A ______ lens is used to treat myopia
77. Example of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for glaucoma
81. The space between the inner cup and surrounding optic disc is comprised of actual retinal ganglion nerves and known as the _____ _____
82. What type of macular degeneration is untreatable?
83. Haemorrhages that occur within the longitudinally oriented cell layers of the retina are known as ___/____ haemorrhages
84. What shaped lenses are used to correct astigmatism?
85. Most common cause of epiretinal membrane
86. A fluid level of blood in the eye is known as ________
88. Vesicles on the tip of the nose preceding herpes zoster opthalmicus is known as ________'s sign
89. How many diopters of power does the normal eye have?
90. The vertical line of pigment on the inner corneal surface in pigment dispersion syndrome is known as ________ spindle
98. Example of a topical beta blocker used for glaucoma
99. Orbital cellulitis usually results from _______ disease
100. A ______ lens is used to treat hyperopia
101. Most common corneal dystrophy